Cerebrovascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 55-year-old man with uncontrolled hypertension presents with sudden-onset headache, confusion, and blurred vision. Vital signs: BP 220/140 mmHg, HR 102 bpm, RR 18, Temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98% on room air. MRI demonstrates bilateral parietal and occipital white matter edema with vasogenic characteristics. Serum creatinine is elevated at 1.8 mg/dL. Notably, he denies focal neurologic deficits. He takes no antihypertensive medications. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- ACerebral venous sinus thrombosis
- BHypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage
- CPosterior reversible encephalopathy syndromeCorrect answer
- DAcute ischemic stroke with vasogenic edema
- EHypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
- FReversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.