Cerebrovascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 52-year-old woman with hypertension develops sudden severe retro-orbital headache followed by diplopia. Vital signs: BP 168/98 mmHg, HR 92/min, RR 16/min, temp 37.2°C. Examination reveals the right eye positioned down and out with ptosis and a dilated nonreactive pupil. Fundoscopy shows no papilledema. CT head without contrast is normal. She denies recent trauma or fever. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Answer choices
- ACavernous sinus thrombosis
- BPontine hemorrhage
- CMicrovascular ischemia from diabetes mellitus
- DPosterior communicating artery aneurysm compressing cranial nerve IIICorrect answer
- EPituitary prolactinoma
- FBasilar artery dissection with compression of the oculomotor nerve
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