Cerebrovascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 75 year old man develops sudden inability to see objects on the left side of his visual field. He has no motor deficits. He can write normally but cannot read what he has written. He has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. Physical examination shows left homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. Which lesion best explains these findings?
Answer choices
- ADominant occipital cortex and splenium of the corpus callosumCorrect answer
- BDominant inferior frontal gyrus
- CLateral medulla
- DVentral pons
- ENondominant inferior parietal lobule
- FDominant angular gyrus
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