Cerebrovascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation not on anticoagulation presents with sudden, painless loss of vision in his left eye. Vital signs: BP 158/92 mmHg, HR 98 bpm (irregularly irregular), RR 16, temp 37.2Ā°C. Funduscopic examination reveals retinal pallor with a characteristic cherry-red spot at the fovea. Carotid ultrasound shows no significant stenosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer choices
- ATemporal arteritis
- BAcute angle-closure glaucoma
- CCentral retinal artery occlusionCorrect answer
- DRetinal detachment
- EOptic neuritis
- FBranch retinal artery occlusion
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