Cerebrovascular Disease USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 58-year-old woman with hypertension presents after sudden collapse. Vital signs: BP 168/94 mmHg, HR 102, RR 18, temp 37.2°C, SpO2 98%. She is awake and alert with intact vertical eye movements but cannot voluntely move her limbs, face, or tongue. Horizontal eye movements are absent. MRI shows acute pontine infarction. She denies recent anticoagulation use. Which brainstem lesion best explains this clinical presentation?
Answer choices
- ABilateral ventral pontine infarction due to basilar artery occlusionCorrect answer
- BUnilateral lateral medullary infarction
- CBilateral occipital infarction
- DCerebellar vermis hemorrhage
- EMidbrain tectal lesion
- FBilateral dorsal pontine infarction due to vertebral artery occlusion
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