Cardiovascular Drugs USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 62-year-old man with hypertension initiated on nifedipine presents with flushing, headache, and bilateral ankle edema. Vital signs show BP 128/76 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 16, temp 37°C, SpO2 98%. Echocardiography reveals normal ejection fraction and no evidence of heart failure. He denies orthopnea or dyspnea on exertion. Which of the following best explains nifedipine's predominant mechanism of action producing these adverse effects?
Answer choices
- ABlockade of beta 1 receptors in the myocardium
- BVenous dilation through nitric oxide donation
- CInhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme
- DArteriolar smooth muscle relaxation through L type calcium channel blockadeCorrect answer
- EDirect inhibition of renin release
- FDecreased sympathetic nervous system activity through central alpha-2 adrenergic receptor stimulation
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