Behavioral Science & Ethics USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 27-year-old woman with a history of intravenous heroin use is brought to the emergency department by paramedics after being found unresponsive in her apartment. Her roommate states the patient had been complaining of withdrawal symptoms earlier today. On arrival, the patient is minimally responsive to verbal stimuli. Vital signs are: heart rate 88/min, respiratory rate 8/min, blood pressure 92/58 mmHg, temperature 36.8°C. Physical examination reveals pinpoint pupils, cool and clammy skin, and scattered track marks on both upper extremities. The patient has no evidence of trauma or other acute illness. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer choices
- AAdminister intravenous dextrose and thiamine
- BAdminister intravenous lorazepam for respiratory depression
- CAdminister intravenous naloxoneCorrect answer
- DAdminister intravenous haloperidol for altered mental status
- EAdmit to ICU for observation and supportive care alone
- FAdminister intravenous flumazenil
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.