Behavioral Science & Ethics USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 50-year-old man presents to his primary care physician and reports persistent low back pain for 3 weeks. He appears anxious and requests an MRI immediately. Physical examination reveals no red flag symptoms, no neurological deficits, and full range of motion. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Answer choices
- AOrder a CT scan as a less expensive alternative to MRI
- BExplain that imaging is not indicated at this time and recommend conservative managementCorrect answer
- COrder the MRI to address the patient's anxiety
- DPrescribe opioid analgesics for pain control
- ERefer to a spine surgeon for evaluation
- FOrder plain radiographs of the lumbar spine to rule out fracture before initiating conservative treatment
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