Arrhythmias USMLE Step 1 Practice Question
A 66-year-old man with prior anterior wall myocardial infarction presents with acute palpitations and near syncope. Vital signs: BP 78/48 mmHg, HR 180 bpm, RR 22, SpO2 92% on room air. Telemetry reveals a regular wide-complex tachycardia. Troponin and electrolytes are normal. Chest X-ray shows no acute pulmonary process. He denies chest pain. He takes metoprolol and lisinopril. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?
Answer choices
- AObservation only
- BSynchronized cardioversionCorrect answer
- CCarotid sinus massage
- DIntravenous atropine
- EAdenosine administration
- FIntravenous amiodarone followed by observation
See the full explanation
Get the correct-answer rationale, why each distractor is wrong, the underlying mechanism, and high-yield associations — plus adaptive practice that targets your weak areas — with a free MedBoardPRO account.